“In meekness
instructing those that oppose themselves;
if God peradventure will give them repentance
to the acknowledging of the truth”~
2 Tim. 2:25
Many religious and well-intended
people who oppose baptism for remission of sins, HAVE been baptized…yet for
another reason. It seems strange that they oppose teaching on the purpose of
baptism for the reason of ‘remission’, yet, submit to it for another reason.
Obviously, they have been taught differently as to baptism’s PURPOSE than we in
the church of Christ. It seems strange that one would submit to an act that one
denies as necessary…all because of its purpose.
Baptism’s PURPOSE: what
is it for? Two differing teachings on baptism’s PURPOSE are: to ‘show’
remission, or to ‘receive’ remission?
Further, is baptism a
‘church ordinance’, performed by and on saved
people, [as stated in a
denominational creed]; or is it a command for
an unsaved person to obey as a part of the new birth of John 3?
Again, it is not an act
that is entirely opposed, for all those who differ, HAVE SUBMITTED to being
baptized. So why oppose the act based upon the lone purpose of it being done
“to receive” remission?
Consider some relevant
questions and parallel examples to the rational on baptism’s purpose from the Bible:
~ Romans 10:13 – “For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord
shall be saved.”
Does “calling” show
salvation, or does “calling” mean, ‘in order to be saved’?
Is “calling” an outward sign of
an inward grace, or does “calling” mean, ‘in order to be saved’?
Does it matter as to the PURPOSE
for ‘calling’?
~ Mark 16:16 – “He that believeth and is baptized, shall be saved.”
Does “belief” show
salvation, or does “belief” mean, ‘in order to be saved’?
Is “belief” an outward sign of
an inward grace, or does “belief” mean, ‘in order to be saved’?
Does it matter as to the PURPOSE
for ‘belief’?
Now, regarding BAPTISM:
Does “baptism” show
salvation, or does “baptism” mean, ‘in order to be saved’?
Is “baptism” an outward sign of
an inward grace, or does “baptism” mean, ‘in order to be saved’?
Does it
matter as to the PURPOSE for ‘baptism’?
Is it not clear that
belief AND baptism are HOW one “calls” upon the name of the Lord?
Consider whether or not
the logic used toward baptism’s purpose [as being to “show”] would make sense,
if the same logic were applied to other matters, whose purposes are regarded as
NECESSARY? For example:
“Faith is not necessary
for remission of sins, but to show your salvation…”
“Repentance is not
necessary for remission of sins, but to show your salvation…”
What about confessing
that you are a sinner, quoting Romans 10:
“Confession is not
necessary for remission of sins, but to show your salvation…”
What if one were to say
that they don’t believe faith is necessary, but they believed to “show”…?
What if one were to say
that they don’t believe repentance is necessary, but they have repented to “show”…?
Strange that one would oppose
as necessary an act [baptism] that he, himself has submitted to, on the basis
of ‘not’ necessary.
Is not this an example of “those who oppose themselves” in “acknowledging
the truth”?
This is why Jesus warned:
"Take heed WHAT ye hear" ~ Mark 4:24
"Take heed HOW ye hear" ~ Luke 8:18
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