Friday, October 26, 2018

A "typical" home description

“The children now love luxury; they have bad manners, contempt for authority; they show disrespect or elders and love chatter in place of exercise. Children are now tyrants, not the servants of their households. They no longer rise when elders enter the room. They contradict their parents, chatter before company, gobble up dainties at the table, cross their legs, and tyrannize their teachers.”

A description of today's typical "home"? Never been like this before, you say? No, just a verification of "history repeating itself". 
The Bible states, "there is nothing new under the sun". (Eccl. 1:9), but this situation is that which the prophet Hosea stated in chapter 4:1-9:

1 Listen to the word of the Lord, O sons of Israel,
For the Lord has a case against the inhabitants of the land,
Because there is no faithfulness or kindness
Or knowledge of God in the land.
2 There is swearing, deception, murder, stealing and adultery.
They employ violence, so that bloodshed follows bloodshed.
3 Therefore the land mourns,
And everyone who lives in it languishes
Along with the beasts of the field and the birds of the sky,
And also the fish of the sea disappear.
4 Yet let no one find fault, and let none offer reproof;
For your people are like those who contend with the priest.
5 So you will stumble by day,
And the prophet also will stumble with you by night;
And I will destroy your mother.
6 My people are destroyed for lack of knowledge.
Because you have rejected knowledge,
I also will reject you from being My priest.
Since you have forgotten the law of your God,
I also will forget your children.
7 The more they multiplied, the more they sinned against Me;
I will change their glory into shame.
8 They feed on the sin of My people
And direct their desire toward their iniquity.
9 AND IT WILL BE, LIKE PEOPLE, LIKE PRIEST; SO I WILL PUNISH THEM FOR THEIR WAYS AND REPAY THEM FOR THEIR DEEDS.


Oh...when was the date of the quote above?
Socrates (469-399 B. C.)

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Deity - ology...

All scripture is theology, but not all theology is scripture. Scripture is God-breathed; theology is man-breathed. In order for theology to be God-breathed it must be scripture. Saving faith will result from obeying what God said (Romans 10:17). What God said is found ONLY in the scriptures.

If you're going to teach/preach ('speak' - 1 Peter 4:11), use scripture, not theology. - theology is defined by scripture; scripture is not defined by theology. The Bible definition of theology: words to no profit that subverts the hearer, that will increase unto more ungodliness and will eat as a canker - 2 Timothy 2:14, -17. Strive not about such words, but rather, rightly apply God's theology (2 Timothy 2:15).

No amount of rightly dividing man's theology will transform it into God's theology. Theology 'twists' God's words (Acts 20:30). It makes a proselyte out of a disciple. All disciples are proselytes, but not all proselytes are disciples. The determining factor is the doctrine they have been subjected to.

When a sinner is taught theology, he becomes a proselyte. Scripture states that he is made twice as much a child of hell as his teacher (Matthew 23:15). He is not made free from his sin, but is yet a slave of sin because of the form of doctrine to which he was committed (Romans 6:17-18). 

If scripture was delivered rather than theology, a sinner will call upon the name of the Lord as those in the book of Acts called. Scripture was delivered and obeyed from the heart in those recorded cases of conversions. The response of the sinner reveals the doctrine that was preached to him, for he will respond in accordance with the teaching he heard.

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Friday, October 19, 2018

CAN WE KNOW TRUTH FROM ERROR IN RELIGION?


The bible makes mention of Satan and of his ‘messengers’ (2 Cor. 11:14-15). What does the Bible reveals about false teachers/teaching?  The context in which this statement is made of Satan and his efforts, is dealing with false teachers who teach error.

Religious convictions are directly related to preaching. There are several warnings from the Bible about how and why false doctrine would arise. These provide us with an accurate picture of the moral status of people as well as the answers to why there is religious division today. It is due to error being preached.

Satan, through his “ministers”, wants to create doubt about both the authenticity and inspiration of the scriptures. It is in this way that Satan succeeds in preventing us from accepting the fact that truth can be determined. If Satan can convince us that we cannot identify truth, then no one can label anything as sin. Accordingly, if we can’t determine sin, then Satan has accomplished his purpose. How has Satan gone about to do this? He has convinced man that “the faith” (Jude 1:3) cannot be determined. He has gotten people to accept that we cannot agree on what the Bible teaches, and that therefore the many differing churches are all just pursuing their own understanding of the Bible, and no one ought to question the other, or pass ‘judgment’.

Satan’s purpose is to steer our thinking to accept sincerity without any emphasis upon the doctrine. Thus we hear such phrases as “there are many different roads to heaven and that we are all traveling a different road, but they all head to the same place”. Consider the following passages and see if sincerity without regard for doctrine will suffice. 

Matt. 7:13-14 – “Enter ye in at the strait gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go in thereat: Because strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it.”
If it doesn’t matter which ‘way’ you travel, as long as you are sincere, why bother trying to “find” the narrow way? Does this suggest that it matters what one believes and practices in religion?

Hear the apostle Paul’s warnings to Timothy in 1 Tim. 1:3-4, “As I besought thee to abide still at Ephesus, when I went into Macedonia, that thou mightest charge some that they teach no other doctrine, neither give heed to fables and endless genealogies, which minister questions, rather than godly edifying which is in faith: so do.”
Notice the phrase, “…teach no other doctrine”. If doctrine doesn’t matter, why did Paul tell Timothy to charge some “…that they teach no other doctrine?” What “doctrine” did Paul want Timothy to teach? For example, what was Timothy to teach about how one “calls upon the name of the Lord”? Was Timothy to teach the same pattern of ‘calling’ that Paul taught? Did Paul and Peter preach the same pattern?

Later in this same epistle in chapter 6:3-5, Paul gave this warning, “If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness; he is proud, knowing nothing, but doting about questions and strifes of words, whereof cometh envy, strife, railings, evil surmisings, perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself.”
Did you notice again, Paul’s statement to “IF ANY MAN TEACH OTHERWISE…AND CONSENT NOT…”? Teach other than what? He said, “…even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ.” Does this mean anything other than to teach the same thing that Jesus taught?

More importantly, could Timothy know what Jesus taught? Could Timothy teach the same thing? How could this warning be carried out if Timothy could not distinguish “the truth” from “the fables”? Paul wrote to Titus in Titus 1:11-16, of false teachers saying, “Whose mouths must be stopped, who subvert whole houses, teaching things which they ought not, for filthy lucre's sake.” What things were not to be taught?
Paul went on to tell Titus how to deal with false teachers. “Wherefore rebuke them sharply, that they may be sound in the faith; not giving heed to Jewish fables, and commandments of men, that turn from the truth” How can you turn from the truth if you can’t define what truth is
Paul warned Timothy in 2 Tim. 4:1-4, “I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom; preach the word; be instant in season, out of season; reprove, rebuke, exhort with all long suffering and doctrine. For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine...”

What about attitudes toward ‘sound doctrine’ today? Does it indicate that people want ‘sound doctrine’? Do they refuse ‘sound doctrine’ on how to be saved, on divorce & remarriage only if fornication has been committed? What about ‘sound doctrine’ on abortion, homosexuality, gambling, drinking, etc.? Does the Bible contradict itself on these matters?

Are there those today who want a preacher who will not condemn their ungodly lifestyles? Are there also preachers who are afraid to preach ‘sound doctrine’ on these matters for fear of loss of employment? These passages clearly teach that truth can be known, and if it can be known, then it can be understood, and if it can be understood, it can be agreed upon!

But Satan has deceived many into accepting the “broad way”; the ‘one church is as good as another’ concept. Such was done in the first century, and the apostle Paul called them what they truly are…false & deceitful. He said in 2 Cor. 11:13-15, “For such are false apostles, deceitful workers, transforming themselves into the apostles of Christ. And no marvel; for Satan himself is transformed into an angel of light. Therefore it is no great thing if his ministers also be transformed as the ministers of righteousness; whose end shall be according to their works.”
Notice that Paul by inspiration of the Holy Ghost said that their end will be according to their “works”. Their “works” refer to their false teaching. What if error is believed and obeyed? If error is believed and obeyed out of ignorance, will ignorance excuse in the Day of Judgment? How would this affect one’s salvation? Does doctrine matter?

What if one was preached error in regard to what to do to be saved…would he be saved? In view of the fact that Satan does not want anyone to be saved, we have warnings such as the apostle Paul’s about how Satan’s ministers transform themselves into apostles of Christ. False teachers existed in Jesus’ day, they existed in the apostles’ day, and they exist today. That is why doctrine matters! It is why we must teach only what Jesus commanded to be taught in order for sins to be forgiven.

Yes it is true that all must come to Jesus, or ‘call upon the name of the Lord’, but the question that needs to be given careful study is, HOW DO YOU CALL? What does the Bible teach…by sincere prayer or by faith and obedience? Which of the two is ‘sound doctrine’? Which do you find taught and followed in the book of Acts?

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Monday, October 15, 2018

"Unaccustomed" to the Bible

HEBREWS 5

Although He was a Son, He learned obedience from the things which He suffered. And having been made perfect, He became to all those who obey Him the source of eternal salvation, 10 being designated by God as a high priest according to the order of Melchizedek.11 Concerning him we have much to say, and it is hard to explain, since you have become dull of hearing. 12 For though by this time you ought to be teachers, you have need again for someone to teach you the elementary principles of the oracles of God, and you have come to need milk and not solid food. 13 For everyone who partakes only of milk is not accustomed to the word of righteousness, for he is an infant. 14 But solid food is for the mature, who because of practice have their senses trained to discern good and evil.


Notice from V. 12, that in stating that they HAD BECOME dull of hearing, it is necessarily implied that they were not always that wayHOW had they become "dull" in their hearing? The answer lies in what was stated in v. 14, about their "powers of discernment". To be able to "discern", it takes "practice"...constant practice. In all that is involved in this, the simple idea, is that of constant bible study. 
When your "powers of discernment" aren't "trained", the result is inevitable that you will BECOME "dull of hearing"; and as the writer said, when you become dull of hearing, distinguishing right from wrong is difficult.
The one area wherein that is most affected by "dullness" is in regard to understanding the significance of man's obedience in his salvation.
This significance is seen in mentioning the example of Jesus and His obedience. Re-read vss. 8-9. Obedience was "learned" through suffering, and is related to, and necessary to "perfection".
Having been "trained", they could now understand the significance of Christ's obedience and of how His 'perfection' came through His sufferings. More importantly, they could understand how/why obedience is connected to the sinner's salvation from His sin.

However, when one's "powers of discernment" aren't "trained", the connection of obedience to salvation is hard to explain...
What about YOU; do you have difficulty seeing the connection of obedience to salvation? 
Give prayerful thought and study to what is said in verse 9 of Jesus, AND of obeying Him, "...having been made perfect, He became to all those who OBEY Him the source of eternal salvation...".

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Saturday, October 13, 2018

FELLOWSHIP - RELATIONSHIP - COVENANT

1 John 1:6-7 ~ If we say that we have fellowship with Him and yet walk in the darkness, we lie and do not practice the truth; but if we walk in the Light as He Himself is in the Light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus His Son cleanses us from all sin.
The importance of a “relationship” as it relates to FELLOWSHIP, can be seen from the example of marriage.
Marriage was ordained from God and as such, it is not an ordinance that any man or society can regulate or amend.
God alone has the right to define marriage.
The "fellowship" in a marriage between a man and a woman is only legit, if the man and woman meet with God’s law regarding who can marry.
The importance of this “relationship”???
Because of it (the relationship), the “bed” is NOT DEFILED (Heb. 13:4). Without a relationship, their coming together would be reduced to a sharing (joint-participation) in sin (i.e. fornication and/or adultery).
Fellowship is based upon the relationship. The relationship is established by the covenant. The covenant contains terms and conditions. The covenant is ratified when the terms and conditions are accepted. Fellowship is enjoyed as the covenant terms are honored (obedience). The fellowship is broken when the terms of the covenant are transgressed.

10/13/2018

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PERSPECTIVE

Today was the absolute worst day ever
And don’t try to convince me that
There’s something good in every day
Because, when you take a closer look, 
this world is a pretty evil place.
Even if
Some goodness does shine through once in a while
Satisfaction and happiness don’t last.
And it’s not true that
It’s all in the mind and heart
Because
True happiness can be obtained
Only if one’s surroundings are good
It’s not true that good exists 
I’m sure you can agree that 
The reality
Creates
My attitude
It’s all beyond my control
And you’ll never in a million years hear me say that
Today was a good day


[Now read from bottom to top]
~ Anonymous


DISTINCTIVE PREACHING

Philip preached distinctively!
Philip preached "Christ unto them" (Acts 8:5). However, the context tells us a little about what he said.
Preaching Jesus involves more than merely invoking His name or telling people that He loves them.
Verse 12 tells us, "...they heard him preaching things 'concerning the kingdom of God, and the name of Jesus Christ, and then, the text tells us how they responded to the preaching: they were baptized both men and women'."
Thus preaching Christ involved something about:

(1) the kingdom, 
(2) the name (authority) of Jesus and 
(3) responding in baptism.


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How the "EFFECTS" of God's Grace "AFFECTS" Man's Faith

In Acts 11, Barnabas "saw" the grace of God. What did he see when he saw "the GRACE of God"? 

A close reading of the text reveals the answer. As with the Holy Spirit, while He is not a visible, physical being, we can see the EFFECTS of His work. We can also see how the Holy Spirit works thru a preached message ~ the gospel. 
This is how it is with "seeing" God's grace. We "see" the EFFECTS of grace in people's RESPONSE to what was PREACHED. The RESPONSE reveals what was preached in the message. 
Thus, grace appears in connection with, or through the preached message or word.

Here is the text of Acts 11:19-23:

[Again, look for what Barnabas "saw".]

19 They therefore that were scattered abroad upon the tribulation that arose about Stephen travelled as far as Phoenicia, and Cyprus, and Antioch, speaking the word to none save only to Jews.
20 But there were some of them, men of Cyprus and Cyrene, who, when they were come to Antioch, spake unto the Greeks also, preaching the Lord Jesus.
21 And the hand of the Lord was with them: and a great number that believed turned unto the Lord.
22 And the report concerning them came to the ears of the church which was in Jerusalem: and they sent forth Barnabas as far as Antioch:
23 who, when he was come, and had seen the grace of God, was glad; and he exhorted them all, that with purpose of heart they would cleave unto the Lord:

When Barnabas saw people "believe" and "turn to the Lord", he saw the EFFECTS of grace. God's GRACE came to these people thru the message...the GOSPEL. 

The apostle Paul explained it to Titus in this way:
"For the grace of God hath appeared, bringing salvation to all men, INSTRUCTING us, to the intent that, denying ungodliness and worldly lusts, we should live soberly and righteously and godly in this present world..." ~ Titus 2:11-12

God's GRACE instructed these people to "TURN" to the Lord; this describes their repentance. The message of truth calls upon all to repent, in order to be forgiven.

Acts 3:19 - "Repent ye therefore, and turn again, that your sins may be blotted out..."

Heb. 11:6 - "Repent ye therefore, and turn again, that your sins may be blotted out..."

The EVOLUTION of DEFINITIONS

Have you ever given thought to how an 'official' definition is arrived at for a word/term? What is the basis for which a word is "defined" in a standard secular dictionary?
Perhaps an example from Webster's Dictionary will provide the answer.
The definition of "TRUTH" as defined by Webster's Dictionary has drastically changed or evolved since 1850.
In 1850, Webster defined "TRUTH" as:
~ That which can be proven to be true or that which is authorized by Jesus Christ.
Note that just a mere 168 years ago truth was based on things pertaining to the Bible.
However, in 1914, Webster gave this definition of "TRUTH":
~ A statement that can be proven true based upon concrete facts. For example truth based on scripture.
In the early 1900’s we see that truth still had "scriptural roots".
But notice that in 1996, Webster gave a much different definition for "TRUTH":
~ A statement believed to be true based upon the beliefs and experiences of the speaker.
Dictionaries, such as Daniel Webster's, define terms AS IS RECOGNIZED/USED BY SOCIETY, IN A GIVEN PERIOD OF TIME.
In 1996, "TRUTH" is no longer based on anything other than one's personal opinion. "TRUTH" is now relative.
Why the change in the definition? Let us ponder the basis or standard by which each definition was put in the dictionary by Mr. Webster. 
Would you not agree that dictionaries, such as Daniel Webster's, define terms AS IS RECOGNIZED/USED BY SOCIETY, IN A GIVEN PERIOD OF TIME?
If not, what would be the basis?

Secular dictionaries should be used with caution when applying definitions to bible terms. The Bible is its own best dictionary. If we will commit the time and effort to comparing a term in one passage IN ITS CONTEXT, to the same term in other passages IN THEIR CONTEXT, we can determine what the meaning of that particular term is.
The meaning of a term ought not change or "evolve" over time. Truth, in the Bible has NOT changed, even though man's attitude has toward it. Jesus said it best in John 17:17 ~ "Sanctify them through thy truth, thy word is truth."
Did Daniel Webster's definition cause people to change their attitude toward TRUTH as defined in God's word, or was societies "evolution" in attitude toward TRUTH over time, merely reflected in the definitions printed by Mr. Webster?
Consider:
In a recent poll of Americans who considered themselves to be "Christians", 78% felt there was NO ABSOLUTE TRUTH. 
A separate poll of "Christians" (used loosely), ages 25 and under yielded an even greater number who thought "TRUTH" to be relative.

This general feeling of relativism in our nation has obviously become popular over the years. It is little wonder that there is no appeal for authority in religious worship or work.
TRUTH, as found in the Bible, is NOT a relative standard, as any one person may determine for himself; rather, it is an absolute standard to which all men should submit.

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The "Path" of Spite

When you're vexed, angry, and frustrated...what can it lead to?
Act with "SPITE" toward someone? Resentment? How is it "played out"? 
We see an example from Acts 17.
The gospel is preached to some non-Jews, and some Jews are so resentful and jealous that they do some underhanded evil...stressing 'UNDERHANDED', because evil actions are ALWAYS, "cloaked" in secrecy...
Man may not know, but God knows what is done in secret (Jer. 23:24).

A great compliment is given to those in Berea [not KY:)] - Acts 17:11.
In the same verse, an equally great rebuke is given to those in Thessalonica.

WHY? Read vss. 1-5, esp. of the jealousy of Jews in v. 5. Then, in vss. 12-13, read of how they "played out" their jealousy.
How did they "stir up" others? Notice what is said of "underhanded" speech:
Job 20:12 - “Though evil is sweet in his mouth, he hides it under his tongue..."
Psalm 10:7 - "His mouth is full of curses and deceit and oppression; under his tongue is mischief and wickedness".

But what of ourselves; are we any different? How do WE react to the "word": BELIEVE IT or STIR UP OTHERS AGAINST IT?
The use of our tongue (what we say; how we say it, etc.) can not only hinder others from obeying Jesus, it reveals our hearts.
Jesus "spoke openly" (John 18:20); because He spoke truth. When speaking truthfully, there is no need for "cloak" with our words.
The words of an old hymn, says it best: 
ANGRY WORDS, O LET THEM NEVER, 
FROM THE TONGUE, UNBRIDLED SLIP;

MAY THE HEARTS BEST IMPULSE EVER,
CHECK THEM E'ER THEY SOIL THE LIPS...

Wednesday, October 10, 2018

Rarely preached truths on the birth of the Savior

Luke 2:33-35 - "And his father and his mother marveled at what was said about him. And Simeon blessed them and said to Mary his mother, 'Behold, THIS CHILD IS APPOINTED FOR THE FALL AND RISING OF MANY IN ISRAEL, AND FOR A SIGN THAT IS OPPOSED (and a sword will pierce through your own soul also), SO THAT THOUGHTS FROM MANY HEARTS MAY BE REVEALED'."
Thereafter, it was proclaimed of Jesus:~ Matthew 21:44 - And he who falls on this stone will be broken to pieces; but on whomever it falls, it will scatter him like dust.”
~ 1 Corinthians 1:23 - but we preach Christ crucified, to Jews a stumbling block and to Gentiles foolishness, ~ 2 Corinthians 2:16 - to the one an aroma from death to death, to the other an aroma from life to life. And who is adequate for these things?
~ 1 Peter 2:8 - and, “A stone of stumbling and a rock of offense”; for they stumble because they are disobedient to the word, and to this doom they were also appointed.
Isaiah's prophecy in Isaiah 8:14 also mentioned that Jesus would be a SANCTUARY for some; while an OFFENSE to others:
“Then He shall become a sanctuary; but to both the houses of Israel, a stone to strike and a rock to stumble over, And a snare and a trap for the inhabitants of Jerusalem."What does this mean? What else could it mean but a reference to the reaction toward Jesus' teachings?
To the obedient, His teachings would be a source of refuge, (i.e. a SANCTUARY). To the disobedient, His teachings would be a source of offense.
John 15 points this out:JOY for the obedient: "If ye keep my commandments, ye shall abide in my love; even as I have kept my Father's commandments, and abide in his love. These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full." ~ vss 10-11OFFENSIVE for the disobedient: "If I had not come and spoken unto them, they had not had sin: but now they have no cloke for their sin.,,If I had not done among them the works which none other man did, they had not had sin: but now have they both seen and hated both me and my Father. But this cometh to pass, that the word might be fulfilled that is written in their law, They hated me without a cause. ~ vss. 22, 24-25
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Tuesday, October 9, 2018

LOGIC vs PRACTICE

Consider the passage, Mark 16:16 ~ "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned."

Many people are taught that their sins are forgiven by a prayer...then to perform a non-essential act to show that, in that prayer, the sins were washed away...and some state that baptism is NOT necessary; only belief.......

Is belief an act of merit, or an act of obedience?
Is baptism an act of merit, or an act of obedience?

Is belief commanded, or not?
Is baptism commanded, or not?

Is belief necessary to salvation?
Is baptism necessary to salvation?

Why is belief is accepted, while baptism is rejected?

I wonder how this logic would "pan" out if 'baptism' was replaced by another act of obedience?

Consider:
He that believeth and REPENTS shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.

Is repentance a command? Is it an act of obedience or of merit? IS IT NECESSARY?

He that believeth and CONFESSES shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.

Is confession a command? Is it an act of obedience or of merit? IS IT NECESSARY?

For that matter..........
If hearing was placed before belief, and the same logic applied to belief as is applied to baptism, what would it look like?

"He that heareth and BELIEVETH shall be saved; but he that heareth not shall be damned."

Would belief be considered a command? Would belief be deemed an act of obedience, or an act of merit? Would belief be necessary to salvation?

IF NOT; WHY NOT?

If the logic will suffice on BAPTISM, it should suffice on REPENTANCE, CONFESSION, BELIEF..... and, for that matter, even on PRAYER!

Notice:
He that believeth and PRAYS shall be saved; but he that BELIEVETH not shall be damned.

Is prayer a command? Is it an act of obedience, or an act of merit? Is it necessary to salvation?

Consider also this parallel LOGIC?
"He that believeth and SHOWS it, shall be saved; but he that BELIEVETH not, shall be damned."

Is "showing" an act of obedience, or an act of merit?
IS "SHOWING" IT, NECESSARY TO SALVATION?

Again, the Lord said these words, "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned." - Mark 16:16

Perhaps another question is in order:
If baptism isn't necessary....WHY THEN, DID YOU BOTHER DOING IT?

Does your "practice" support/justify your "logic"?

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