Saturday, January 15, 2011

"If any man will...he shall know" - John 7:17


Why are religious people divided into denominational churches?  Why can’t all understand and worship God in the same way?  Don’t all use the same Bible?  Why is it that some can see it alike to a certain extent, while others, while seeing some parts of the Bible alike, disagree with other denominations on other parts of the Bible?  For example, some denominations claim that there is a heaven and a hell, while others deny the existence of hell entirely.  Even within the same physical family, this is so.  Which is it?  Does Hell exist or not?  If you believe that it doesn’t exist and you have a family member who attends a congregation that believes that it does exist, are you both right?  Are there any consequences if wrong?  Can you not agree among yourselves on the matter?  More importantly, is this difference of understanding what God intended when He revealed His will to man?  For anyone to submit that this is what God desires of man is an insult to intelligence.  God did not reveal His will to man intending for man to be unable to comprehend what was revealed.  God spoke so that man might know & understand His will; otherwise, the purpose for speaking is useless.  Even among humans, we do not speak for the purpose of hindering understanding & but in order that we might understand and comprehend one another.  If we can understand one another, why cannot we understand God?  Even preachers & church leaders will write books and advertise those books as being needful to “help understand” (?) something found in the Bible.  Can they (the preachers and church leaders) write so as to be understood, while proclaiming to you that God could not do so?  Can un-inspired man outdo God?  We plead with all who read these articles to consider this situation. 

False teaching has its roots in this mindset.  Do you believe that God’s word, the Bible, cannot be understood?  I adamantly deny this and give my evidence from statements from the inspired writers of the Bible.  I only ask that you give time and consideration to what the Bible says on this subject of being able to ‘understand’ its contents:

Eph. 5:17 - Wherefore be ye not unwise, but understanding what the will of the Lord is.
1 Cor. 1:10 - Now I beseech you, brethren, by the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the same thing, and that there be no divisions among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the same mind and in the same judgment.
Eph. 3:3-4 - How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words, Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ)
Rom. 12:2 - And be not conformed to this world: but be ye transformed by the renewing of your mind, that ye may prove what is that good, and acceptable, and perfect, will of God.

These passages suffice to show that God’s will can be understood, and understood alike.  God wants us to understand and to comprehend what He has declared of Him, His nature, and His will.  Why then is it that “seeing they see not and hearing they hear not”?  As has been pointed out in past articles, the hindrance to seeing the truth lies in one’s desire to practice sin.  Jesus said in John 7:17 that “If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.”   In John 3:19-21, Jesus stated why people rejected His doctrine.  “And this is the condemnation, that light is come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than light, because their deeds were evil.  For every one that doeth evil hateth the light, neither cometh to the light, lest his deeds should be reproved.  But he that doeth truth cometh to the light, that his deeds may be made manifest, that they are wrought in God.”

The gospel as preached by Jesus and the apostles is the only gospel that is ‘truth’.  It contains a pattern of obedience for the one who is lost in sin.  This plan must be complied with or forgiveness for one’s past sins will not be given from God.  This ‘plan of salvation’ is part of the gospel, as man needs to know how to reach the blood of Christ.  It can only be followed by faith in what has been commanded.  There are commands to obey for those lost in sin.  Obedience to these commands are essential as the proper response of one separated from God by sin.  They are found throughout the book of Acts, beginning with the apostle Peter’s response to the question in Acts 2:37, “Men and brethren, what shall we do?”  This question necessarily inferred that they believed Peter’s preaching.  They recognized their need to do something in regard to their sins.  
Were they saved at this point?  
Do you deny that they believed at this point?  
Were they saved by their faith?  
Had God’s grace appeared to them yet?  
Were they saved by grace through faith at this point?  

What do you say?  

Had Peter gave his response yet?  
Had they been told what to do?  

Notice that they asked “What shall we DO?  

Were they saved yet?  
Did they believe prior to asking this question?  
What have you heard on the matter of how a person is saved...by faith, by faith only, by grace through faith due to the fact that we cannot ‘earn’ our salvation?  

I ask you to consider these on the day of Pentecost...

did they consider themselves ‘saved’ before asking “...what shall we do?” 

Common sense demands that this is not true.  

They would not have asked “What shall we do” if they didn't believe that they were yet in sin.  There were commands for them to comply with and those commands had not as yet been told them as Peter had not give his answer in verse 37.  Please re-read this text in your Bible and give consideration to the questions I have raised.
  
Obeying a command of God is not ‘earning’ or meriting your salvation. 

If so, what about belief?  It is a ‘work’.  John 6:29 says, “This is the work of God, that ye believe on him who he hath sent.”   Is belief a work of God, or a work of merit?  In Hebrews chapter 11, we find many people who had faith or belief. 

Religious division has occurred in part because this gospel has been perverted.  What shall a person do to be saved?  The answer Peter gave is easily understood.  I can simply quote it and anyone can understand it.  It is in verse 38.  “...repent and be baptized...”  Do you agree?  Was this what Peter replied?  Now what did Peter MEAN by these words “...repent and be baptized...”?  Consider some modern-day ‘interpretations’:

1. ‘pray the sinners prayer’...is this what ‘repent and be baptized’ means?
2. ‘accept Jesus as your personal Savior and pray a prayer similar to this’... is this what ‘repent and be baptized’ means?
3. ‘ask Jesus to come into your life’... is this what ‘repent and be baptized’ means?
4. ‘confess you are a sinner and ask Him to save you, for whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved’... is this what ‘repent and be baptized’ means?
5. ‘believe that Jesus died on the cross for you, that His death was for this purpose and you will be saved’...”is this what ‘repent and be baptized’ means?
6. ‘believe only because you cannot earn your salvation, and salvation is by grace through faith’... is this what ‘repent and be baptized’ means?
7. ‘believe, and you will be saved at the point of belief and later we will baptize you, vote on you, then baptize you to join the church’... is this what ‘repent and be baptized’ means?

OR DID PETER MEAN “REPENT AND BE BAPTIZED FOR THE REMISSION OF YOUR SINS?”... is this what ‘repent and be baptized’ means?

RDB
copyright 2011

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